# PLAB 1 Mock Exam: 20 Timed Questions

> 20 PLAB 1 questions from across the exam, with a practice countdown, your score and a full review at the end. Free, no sign up.

Canonical: https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/mock
Last updated: 2026-10-31

Twenty questions drawn from the topics of the exam, with a practice countdown. You get the score and the reasoning for every answer at the end.

This short practice mock uses 60 seconds per question.

The 20 questions in this mock, with the answers
1. 1 / 20  
A 23-year-old taking a combined oral contraceptive presents with light contact bleeding. Speculum examination shows a smooth, red, everted area around the cervical os. There is no discrete polyp, ulceration or irregular mass.  
What is the most likely diagnosis?  
Show answer

**Answer: D.** Cervical ectropion.

**Why:** This is cervical ectropion, a benign exposure of columnar epithelium on the ectocervix that can cause contact bleeding. It is associated with oestrogen and combined hormonal contraception. A suspicious or persistent unexplained symptom still requires appropriate clinical assessment.

  * **A.** Endometrial cancer is very unlikely at this age and usually presents with uterine bleeding rather than a characteristic cervical finding.
  * **B.** An irregular or ulcerated mass would be more concerning for cancer than the symmetric appearance described.
  * **C.** A polyp is a discrete lesion that projects from the cervical canal.  
Sources: NHS, Cervical ectropion; NICE NG12, Suspected cancer: recognition and referral
2. 2 / 20  
A 74-year-old with persistent stage 1 hypertension has left ventricular hypertrophy consistent with target organ damage. There is no frailty.  
What is the appropriate next discussion?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Discuss antihypertensive drug treatment alongside lifestyle advice

**Why:** NICE NG136 recommends discussing medication for persistent stage 1 hypertension in adults under 80 with target organ damage. Discuss the individual cardiovascular risk, preferences and possible benefits and harms.

  * **B.** NICE includes target organ damage as a reason to discuss treatment before an event occurs.
  * **C.** Potassium supplements are not recommended as a blood pressure lowering method.
  * **D.** This stable outpatient scenario does not indicate emergency intravenous treatment.  
Sources: NICE NG136 recommendations 1.4.10 and 1.4.11
3. 3 / 20  
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents. They report that he does not make eye contact, does not respond to his name, and has not developed spoken language. He plays repetitively by lining up his toy cars and becomes extremely distressed if his routine is altered.  
What is the most likely diagnosis?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

**Why:** Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is characterized by persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts, alongside restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities. NICE guidelines emphasize early recognition of these signs and referral to a multidisciplinary child development team for formal assessment.

  * **B.** ADHD is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention, rather than core deficits in social communication and repetitive routine behaviors.
  * **C.** This affects motor coordination (dyspraxia) and does not present with severe speech delay or repetitive play patterns.
  * **D.** While he has speech delay, the specific presence of repetitive play and insistence on routine point specifically to ASD rather than isolated global delay.  
Sources: NICE NG128
4. 4 / 20  
A 13 year old is diagnosed with limited plaque psoriasis during a primary care visit and is otherwise well.  
What does NICE recommend about specialist care?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Refer the child to a specialist at presentation

**Why:** Refer the child to a specialist at presentation. NICE CG153 makes this recommendation for children and young people with any type of psoriasis, including limited disease.

  * **B.** A child with psoriasis should receive specialist input at presentation rather than only follow the adult primary care pathway.
  * **C.** The referral recommendation applies to any type of psoriasis in children, not only extensive disease.
  * **D.** Referral is advised at presentation, so it should not be delayed until systemic treatment is discussed.  
Sources: NICE CG153 recommendation 1.2.1.12
5. 5 / 20  
A 32-year-old woman receives her routine cervical screening results. The report states that high-risk Human Papillomavirus (HR-HPV) was detected, but the reflex cytology is negative (normal, no abnormal cells).  
What is the correct next step in her screening management according to NHS guidelines?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Repeat the cervical screening test in 12 months

**Why:** The NHS Cervical Screening Programme uses primary HPV screening. (1) HPV negative: routine recall (3 or 5 years). (2) HPV positive, cytology abnormal: refer for colposcopy. (3) HPV positive, cytology negative: repeat test in 12 months. If the 12-month repeat is HPV positive (cytology negative), repeat again in another 12 months. If positive at 24 months, refer to colposcopy regardless of cytology.

  * **B.** Colposcopy referral is only indicated if cytology is abnormal, or if the patient has persistent HR-HPV positive results with negative cytology for 2 consecutive years (or 24 months).
  * **C.** Returning to routine recall is only appropriate if the screening sample is HR-HPV negative. Since she is HPV positive, she cannot return to routine recall.
  * **D.** LLETZ is a treatment for confirmed high-grade cervical dysplasia (CIN2/3) found on colposcopy biopsy, not for screening results with normal cytology.  
Sources: NHS Cervical Screening Programme guidelines; NICE CKS
6. 6 / 20  
A 12-year-old with lower UTI is treated with nitrofurantoin using the modified release option. The clinician considers symptom severity, urine culture findings, age, renal function and prior antibiotic exposure.  
How often is the listed dose taken?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** 100 mg twice daily

**Why:** For ages 12 to 15 years, the modified-release nitrofurantoin option is 100 mg twice daily for 3 days when eGFR is at least 45 ml/minute. Apply the recommendation to the child's age, symptoms and susceptibility results, and reassess if features suggest upper UTI.

  * **B.** 100 mg once daily is not appropriate for how often is the listed dose taken?. NICE NG109 supports 100 mg twice daily instead. For ages 12 to 15 years, the modified-release nitrofurantoin option is 100 mg twice daily for 3 days when eGFR is at least 45 ml/minute. Apply the recommendation to the child's age, symptoms and susceptibility results, and reassess if features suggest upper UTI.
  * **C.** 750 micrograms/kg once daily is not appropriate for how often is the listed dose taken?. NICE NG109 supports 100 mg twice daily instead. For ages 12 to 15 years, the modified-release nitrofurantoin option is 100 mg twice daily for 3 days when eGFR is at least 45 ml/minute. Apply the recommendation to the child's age, symptoms and susceptibility results, and reassess if features suggest upper UTI.
  * **D.** Single dose is not appropriate for how often is the listed dose taken?. NICE NG109 supports 100 mg twice daily instead. For ages 12 to 15 years, the modified-release nitrofurantoin option is 100 mg twice daily for 3 days when eGFR is at least 45 ml/minute. Apply the recommendation to the child's age, symptoms and susceptibility results, and reassess if features suggest upper UTI.  
Sources: NICE NG109 recommendation 1.4.1 table 2
7. 7 / 20  
A 79-year-old with vomiting and poor intake takes ramipril, a diuretic and an over-the-counter NSAID and is hypovolaemic.  
Which medication safety action is most appropriate?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Assess for AKI and review medicines that can worsen kidney injury

**Why:** NICE NG148 identifies hypovolaemia and recent use of NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors and diuretics as reasons to investigate for AKI during acute illness. Check renal function against baseline and review medicines. A drug list alone does not diagnose AKI, and adding an NSAID could worsen kidney injury.

  * **B.** Continuing all medicines unchanged overlooks the interaction between volume depletion and drugs that can worsen kidney injury.
  * **C.** Adding another NSAID increases nephrotoxic exposure during hypovolaemia.
  * **D.** These medicines and risks prompt investigation but do not establish AKI without clinical and renal function assessment.  
Sources: NICE NG148 recommendations 1.1.1 and 1.6.4
8. 8 / 20  
A 63-year-old woman has a suspected TIA with fully resolved weakness. There is no headache, seizure, trauma or other clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis that CT could detect.  
What is the recommended role of CT brain imaging at this stage?  
Show answer

**Answer: D.** Do not offer CT unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis that CT could detect

**Why:** NICE advises against CT brain imaging for suspected TIA unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis that CT could detect. Urgent specialist referral remains necessary.

  * **A.** NICE advises against routine CT brain scanning for suspected TIA.
  * **B.** CT angiography is not required before the immediate specialist referral for suspected TIA.
  * **C.** A routine CT for every suspected TIA is not recommended when no alternative CT detectable diagnosis is suspected.  
Sources: NICE NG128, recommendation 1.2.1
9. 9 / 20  
A 9-year-old boy presents to his GP with a 2-month history of dry cough and wheezing that is worse at night and during exercise. He has no history of atopy. The GP suspects asthma.  
What is the recommended first-line diagnostic investigation pathway for this patient according to NICE guidelines?  
Show answer

**Answer: D.** Perform fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) testing and spirometry with bronchodilator reversibility (BDR)

**Why:** NICE guideline NG80 recommends objective testing to diagnose asthma in children aged 5 and over. The protocol involves FeNO testing (FeNO >= 35 ppb is positive) and spirometry with bronchodilator reversibility (FEV1/FVC < 70% is obstructive; improvement of >= 12% indicates reversibility). These objective tests should be performed before initiating maintainance therapy.

  * **A.** NICE guidelines emphasize performing objective diagnostic tests (FeNO/spirometry) \*before\* starting preventer treatment in children who are stable, rather than starting empiric trials.
  * **B.** Peak flow diary is used if spirometry is normal or unavailable but clinical suspicion remains high, but FeNO and spirometry with BDR are the preferred first-line objective tests.
  * **C.** Chest X-ray is not a diagnostic tool for asthma unless excluding other pathology. Skin prick tests identify triggers but do not diagnose asthma.  
Sources: NICE NG80
10. 10 / 20  
A 28-year-old male with a history of Ulcerative Colitis presents with a 5-day history of bloody diarrhoea. He reports passing 8 bloody stools per day. On examination, he is febrile (38.2°C), tachycardic (102 bpm), and has mild lower abdominal tenderness. His CRP is 65 mg/L.  
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management according to Truelove and Witts criteria?  
Show answer

**Answer: C.** Admit for intravenous corticosteroids and monitor for toxic megacolon

**Why:** NICE NG130 states that acute severe ulcerative colitis (defined by Truelove and Witts criteria as >= 6 bloody stools/day plus at least one sign of systemic toxicity: temp > 37.8°C, HR > 90 bpm, Hb < 105 g/L, or ESR/CRP elevated) requires immediate admission for IV corticosteroids (typically IV Hydrocortisone 100mg QDS).

  * **A.** Mesalazine is for mild-to-moderate colitis; a severe flare represents a medical emergency and cannot be treated with outpatient 5-ASA.
  * **B.** Oral steroids are suitable for moderate flares. Severe flares must be admitted to hospital for IV treatment due to the high risk of bowel perforation and toxic megacolon.
  * **D.** Full colonoscopy is contraindicated in acute severe colitis due to the high risk of perforation; a flexible sigmoidoscopy without bowel preparation is preferred if diagnosis is needed.  
Sources: NICE NG130
11. 11 / 20  
A 74-year-old is admitted with acute ischaemic stroke. Their oxygen saturation is 97% on room air and they are not in respiratory distress.  
What oxygen treatment is recommended?  
Show answer

**Answer: B.** Give supplemental oxygen only if saturation falls below 95%

**Why:** NICE NG128 recommendation 1.5.1 advises giving supplemental oxygen after stroke only if oxygen saturation falls below 95%. Routine oxygen is not recommended in people with acute stroke who are not hypoxic. The patient's saturation is 97% on room air, so supplemental oxygen is not indicated on the facts given.

  * **A.** NICE does not recommend routine supplemental oxygen in acute stroke when the patient is not hypoxic.
  * **C.** NICE recommends treating hypoxaemia rather than targeting saturation above 100% with routine high-flow oxygen.
  * **D.** The recommendation is based on oxygen saturation, not asthma history.  
Sources: NICE NG128 recommendation 1.5.1
12. 12 / 20  
A 46-year-old has a clinic blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg on repeat measurement. They are able to use an ambulatory monitor.  
Which investigation should be offered to confirm hypertension?  
Show answer

**Answer: B.** Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

**Why:** For clinic blood pressure between 140/90 mmHg and 180/120 mmHg, offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring to confirm the diagnosis. Offer home monitoring when ABPM is unsuitable or not tolerated.

  * **A.** This is not a routine confirmatory test for uncomplicated elevated clinic blood pressure.
  * **C.** ECG monitoring assesses cardiac rhythm, not whether hypertension is sustained.
  * **D.** A single reading does not meet the recommended home monitoring protocol.  
Sources: NICE NG136, recommendations 1.2.3 and 1.2.4
13. 13 / 20  
A 69-year-old with symptomatic AF is stable and needs long-term rate control. There is no heart failure or contraindication to rate-limiting treatment.  
Which initial monotherapy options are recommended?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** A standard beta-blocker or rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker

**Why:** NICE NG196 Use a standard beta-blocker or rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker for initial AF rate control. Apply this recommendation after confirming the clinical context, reviewing relevant risks and contraindications, and discussing appropriate options with the person. Reassess the plan when their clinical circumstances change.

  * **B.** NICE NG196: Use a standard beta-blocker or rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker for initial AF rate control. Amiodarone or flecainide for every patient does not follow this recommendation.
  * **C.** NICE NG196: Use a standard beta-blocker or rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker for initial AF rate control. Digoxin as first choice for every active patient does not follow this recommendation.
  * **D.** NICE NG196: Use a standard beta-blocker or rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker for initial AF rate control. Aspirin or clopidogrel does not follow this recommendation.  
Sources: NICE NG196 recommendations 1.7.2 and 1.7.3
14. 14 / 20  
In England, a 70-year-old with a urinary infection and mild dementia refuses cannulation. The doctor has not assessed whether acute confusion is affecting the patient’s ability to decide.  
What is the most accurate interpretation of the refusal?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** It does not establish capacity or incapacity; assess the patient’s ability for this decision

**Why:** A refusal must be taken seriously but does not itself settle capacity. Assess the decision-specific test, including whether an impairment or disturbance causes inability to understand, retain, use or weigh relevant information, or communicate a decision.

  * **B.** Dementia alone cannot establish inability to make this decision.
  * **C.** Communicating a choice is only one part of the functional test; the patient must also understand, retain and use or weigh relevant information.
  * **D.** Refusal of physical treatment is not a basis for Mental Health Act detention.  
Sources: Mental Capacity Act 2005, sections 1 to 3
15. 15 / 20  
A 67-year-old with persistent atrial fibrillation diagnosed 6 months ago has a ventricular rate of 118 beats per minute and troublesome palpitations. They are haemodynamically stable and have no heart failure or contraindication to rate-limiting treatment.  
Which is an appropriate initial rate-control strategy in this non-acute setting?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Offer a standard beta-blocker or a rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker, choosing with the person based on symptoms and comorbidities

**Why:** NICE NG196 recommendation 1.7.2 recommends either a standard beta-blocker or a rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker such as diltiazem or verapamil for initial rate-control monotherapy, with the choice based on symptoms, heart rate, comorbidities and preferences. Recommendation 1.7.3 directs clinicians to heart-failure guidance for people with concomitant heart failure.

  * **B.** NICE reserves consideration of digoxin monotherapy for non-paroxysmal AF when the person does little or no exercise, or other rate-limiting options are ruled out.
  * **C.** NICE recommends a standard beta-blocker or rate-limiting calcium-channel blocker as initial rate-control monotherapy for most people.
  * **D.** Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic considered for rhythm control in selected people, not routine initial rate-control monotherapy.  
Sources: NICE NG196 recommendations 1.7.2 and 1.7.3
16. 16 / 20  
A 31-year-old primigravida at 24 weeks' gestation with a BMI of 31 is screened for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) using a 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Her results reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 5.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour plasma glucose of 8.2 mmol/L. She is otherwise well and has no other co-morbidities.  
What is the most appropriate initial management step according to NICE guidelines?  
Show answer

**Answer: D.** Offer a trial of diet and exercise for up to 2 weeks, and advise self-monitoring of blood glucose

**Why:** NICE guideline NG3 defines the diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes as a fasting plasma glucose of >= 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour plasma glucose of >= 7.8 mmol/L. For women with a fasting glucose < 7.0 mmol/L, initial management is lifestyle modification (diet and exercise) for 1-2 weeks. If glucose targets are not met, Metformin is added. If Metformin is contraindicated, untolerated, or insufficient, insulin is added. If fasting glucose is >= 7.0 mmol/L at diagnosis, insulin should be offered immediately.

  * **A.** Metformin is indicated if blood glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of diet and exercise alteration, or immediately if fasting glucose is >= 7.0 mmol/L, not as the first step for fasting glucose < 7.0 mmol/L.
  * **B.** Immediate insulin (with or without Metformin) is indicated if the fasting glucose at diagnosis is >= 7.0 mmol/L, or if there is severe macrosomia or polyhydramnios, which is not present here.
  * **C.** Under NICE guidelines, GDM is diagnosed if fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Both of her values are elevated, confirming gestational diabetes.  
Sources: NICE NG3
17. 17 / 20  
A 76-year-old presents to hospital with suspected community-acquired pneumonia. The patient is stable enough for diagnostic assessment, and the clinical team is arranging the initial investigations. They report cough, fever and breathlessness.  
What should the hospital have processes in place to achieve?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Diagnosis, including chest X-ray, within 4 hours of hospital presentation

**Why:** NICE NG250 recommendation 1.4.1 says to put processes in place to allow diagnosis, including chest X-ray, of community-acquired pneumonia in adults within 4 hours of hospital presentation. Recommendation 1.4.2 recognises lung ultrasound for selected situations, such as a sick or deteriorating person, a possible alternative diagnosis, or suspected pleural complications.

  * **B.** NICE specifies timely diagnostic processes including chest X-ray; it does not recommend routine CT for every adult with suspected pneumonia.
  * **C.** The recommendation is to enable diagnosis, including chest X-ray, within 4 hours of hospital presentation.
  * **D.** NICE includes chest X-ray in its recommendation for hospital diagnosis. Lung ultrasound may also be used in specified situations.  
Sources: NICE NG250 recommendations 1.4.1 and 1.4.2
18. 18 / 20  
A 27-year-old with asthma attends a review and finds it difficult to describe how often symptoms wake them or limit activity. The clinician is considering a structured way to assess control.  
Which tool may be considered at an asthma review?  
Show answer

**Answer: B.** A validated symptom questionnaire such as the Asthma Control Test

**Why:** Consider a validated symptom questionnaire at an asthma review, such as the Asthma Control Questionnaire, Asthma Control Test or Childhood Asthma Control Test. It can support the discussion but should be considered alongside other control and risk information.

  * **A.** NICE NG245 does not recommend regular peak flow monitoring for all people to assess control.
  * **C.** A chest radiograph is not the validated symptom questionnaire described in the guideline.
  * **D.** Brand preference alone does not measure asthma control; use a validated symptom questionnaire if helpful.  
Sources: BTS NICE SIGN NG245 recommendation 1.5.2
19. 19 / 20  
A 78-year-old male is admitted with a severe upper gastrointestinal bleed. He is vomiting blood, and his blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg. The medical team determines that an urgent blood transfusion is required to save his life. The patient, who is fully alert, coherent, and understands the risks of refusing, states that he does not want a blood transfusion due to personal beliefs. He does not have an advance decision or a lasting power of attorney.  
What is the most appropriate course of action for the medical team?  
Show answer

**Answer: A.** Respect the patient's refusal and do not administer the blood transfusion

**Why:** Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005 and GMC Good Medical Practice, if an adult patient has the capacity to make a decision, their decision must be respected. This includes a decision to refuse life-saving treatment (such as a blood transfusion). Next of kin cannot consent on behalf of a competent patient, and emergency necessity cannot override a valid competent refusal.

  * **B.** In UK law, no adult can consent to or refuse medical treatment on behalf of another competent adult. Next of kin have no legal authority to override a competent patient's decision.
  * **C.** The doctrine of necessity only applies if a patient lacks capacity and their wishes are unknown. It cannot be used to override a competent refusal.
  * **D.** The Court of Protection resolves disputes when a patient lacks capacity. It has no jurisdiction to force treatment on a competent patient.  
Sources: GMC Good Medical Practice; Mental Capacity Act 2005
20. 20 / 20  
A 22-year-old woman presents to a GP at 8 weeks' gestation requesting a termination of pregnancy. She states she is in university, has no financial support, and a baby would ruin her mental health and career prospects. The GP has a conscientious objection to abortion due to personal religious beliefs.  
Which of the following describes the GP's legal and ethical obligations under GMC guidelines and the Abortion Act 1967?  
Show answer

**Answer: B.** Explain their conscientious objection respectfully and refer the patient immediately to another doctor or service that can facilitate the request

**Why:** The Abortion Act 1967 permits abortion in Great Britain. The most common ground is Ground C (continuance of pregnancy would involve risk of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman). Under GMC guidelines, doctors can conscientiously object to participating in abortions, but they must make sure the patient is referred to another practitioner without delay and must not impose their beliefs.

  * **A.** Termination is legal up to 24 weeks under Ground C (risk to physical/mental health of the woman). Refusing to discuss or mislead the patient is a breach of GMC guidelines.
  * **C.** No court approval is needed for termination; it requires signatures of two registered medical practitioners certifying that it meets the criteria of the Abortion Act.
  * **D.** GMC guidelines state that doctors must not impose their personal beliefs on patients or cause them distress by moralizing about their choices.  
Sources: Abortion Act 1967; GMC Good Medical Practice: Personal beliefs and medical practice

## More topics

* [Obstetrics & Gynaecology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/obstetrics-gynaecology)
* [Cardiology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/cardiology)
* [Paediatrics](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/paediatrics)
* [Dermatology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/dermatology)
* [General Practice](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/general-practice)
* [Urinary tract infection](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/urinary-tract-infection)
* [Renal](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/renal)
* [Neurology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/neurology)
* [Respiratory](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/respiratory)
* [Emergency medicine](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/emergency-medicine)
* [Stroke](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/stroke)
* [Hypertension](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/hypertension)
* [Anticoagulation](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/anticoagulation)
* [Psychiatry](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/psychiatry)
* [Atrial fibrillation](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/atrial-fibrillation)
* [Diabetes](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/diabetes)
* [Pneumonia](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/pneumonia)
* [Asthma](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/asthma)
* [Consent and capacity](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/consent-and-capacity)
* [Ethics](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/ethics)
* [Endocrinology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/endocrinology)
* [General Surgery](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/general-surgery)
* [Perioperative medicine](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/perioperative-medicine)
* [GMC](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/gmc)
* [Prevention and screening](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/prevention-and-screening)
* [Gastroenterology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/gastroenterology)
* [Orthopaedics](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/orthopaedics)
* [Urology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/urology)
* [Chronic Disease Management](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/chronic-disease-management)
* [Oncology](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/oncology)
* [Trauma](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/trauma)
* [Depression](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/depression)
* [ENT](https://medhub.one/practice/plab-1/ent)

Exam-style questions written by MedHub for practice. They are not official exam questions.